[nikos59]

This is the hand, at matchpoints:

Scoring: MP

---

The bidding

South West North East
pass 1C 1D pass
pass dbl 1S pass
pass pass

Result: 1S-2

NS are not happy with the result and they have asked you to
to be their judge and assign the blame.

TIA
Nikos

[inquiry]

Ok.. .this is a hard one, because the bidding wasn't sterling by either player.

Let's start at the beginning. What do I think of 1♦? Well, its not bad. If you are not playing polish 1NT overcalls (aka raptor), what else can you do. So I give 1♦ an ok rating.

How about south's first pass? What else can he do? So the pass is ok too. Now. lets look a the 2♠ bid. If south's hearts and spades were reversed, the 1♠ bid will have found a great fit. But on the other hand north has a weak hand, maybe just slightly better to or equal to a minimum opening bid. His partner couldn't keep the bidding open. If he passes, and the opponents land in hearts, he can use a takeout double to safely renter the auction. IF they land in spades, maybe best to stay out of the auction. Thus, I would have passed with north's hand (I am not thinking 4♠ sacrafice if they find a 4♥ contract at this vulnerability). So a minor point off for 1♠

What do I think of pass of 1♠? This is not-defendable. South might try 1NT. He might try 2♣ if he thinks his partner will not take this as "strong" support for spades given teh intial pass, or he can bid 2♦.

Given it is matchpoint, and given I do have nice values (spade ACE, club KJ, diamond J), as south I would bid 1NT, here.

Since 1♠ wasn't horrible, just not the bid I would make, I judge south most at fault. I assign the blame as 80% south. North gets 20% for making this bid before EW get themselves in trouble in spades themselves, since he could alway rebalance if they stop in hearts at a low level.

Ben

[Poky]

South 110%

I cannot understand for what should north be blamed? He bid diamonds and spades and he has 6♦ and 4♠ in a good hand.

His partner could hold some 4414 or similar weakish hand (6-7 hcp) when it is always nice to overbid them if they reach 2♥.

Really strange question for an "Advanced+ bridge" subforum. Except if north is known as bluffer and south thought his partner was faking the 1♦ overcall. He he...

[whereagles]

Hum.. North might have overcalled 2D. South may have bid 2C over 1S, or at least put partner back into diamonds.

[joker_gib]

Seriously, how is it possible not to give preference to ♦ with a stiff ♠

I suppose south was sleeping !

[EricK]

Passing 1♠ was certainly an odd decision.

Since a 1♦ overcall nearly always shows opening strength (else it is a rather pointless bid) there is a lot to be said for having the agreement that bidding continues as if partner had opened 1♦:

(1♣) 1♦ 1♥ 1♠ 1NT 2♦ (assuming opps stay silent)

Eric

[pbleighton]

1) North should have overcalled 2D with a passed pd, but 1D is OK.
2) Given a 1D overcall, North should have rebid 2D, but 1S is OK.
3) Given 1S by North, South should have preferred to diamonds. Pass is not OK.

80% of the blame to South, who made a bad call, but if North had bid better (2 chances), South wouldn't have had to make the decision.

Peter

[Free]

Completely south's fault! Pass over 1♠ is unacceptable, he knows they're playing in a 4-1 fit (otherwise an immediate 1♠ overcall imo).

[beatrix45]

North's bid of 1S seems a little wild to me, but south's pass of 1S was genuinely awful. How many spades did he/she think their side had? I might have tried 2C with the south hand in case partner was 4-2-5-2 or better yet 4-1-5-3. He can always run back to diamonds with a six bagger and short clubs. Assigning blame? Awful = 90%, Wild = 10%.

[hotShot]

North 1♠ is a plain stupid bid after West's dbl.
He has a long good ♦ suit, and no need to run.
West should have at least 7 cards in the majors and is definitly short in ♦.
North knows that opps won't like the ♠ and ♦ split, he has every reason to believe that south has at least 4-4 in ♥ and ♣, since he did not raise the ♦ suit and east did not raise the ♣. So if east was to weak to raise with fit, north should let south decide what do.

So from south poit of view:
Why did north make the decision?
Why didn't north dbl, instead of 1♦ to show a 2 suited hand with a major?
Could north bid be canape style?
Can north have a 5-5 distribution?
Could 1♦ be a psyche?

7 tricks are easyer to get than 8 tricks, and south can still run if opps decide to dbl.
South does not know of a ♦ fit, only if north has at least 2♣ there is a fit.
It is obvious that north does not have a ♥ stop and south doesn't have one too.
Even with 4-1 fit , opps cannot make as many ♥ tricks as they could if the contract was NT.

I would assign north at least 80% of the blame.

[Double !]

I do not feel that North's bid of 1S is stupid. This is Matchpoints, you have a 6-loser hand (plus or minus), you hold the master suit (spades), and if necessary, you have a 6 card suit to rebid. IMO, at matchpoints, one should try get the major in, especially spades, if it can be done relatively safely (like at the 1-level).
If opps now elect to bid, it will be at the 2-level, and partner (another partner, not this one) will be in a better situation to collaborate on the bidding process. Who could possibly know why partner sat for 1S. Was partner/ passer a relatively inexperienced player? Perhaps partner said to self, "no double, no trouble"? Who knows? Bet partner said "glp" when dummy was tabled.

[hotShot]

Double !, on Jan 4 2005, 04:41 AM, said:

I do not feel that North's bid of 1S is stupid. This is Matchpoints, you have a 6-loser hand (plus or minus), you hold the master suit (spades), and if necessary, you have a 6 card suit to rebid. IMO, at matchpoints, one should try get the major in, especially spades, if it can be done relatively safely (like at the 1-level).
If opps now elect to bid, it will be at the 2-level, and partner (another partner, not this one) will be in a better situation to collaborate on the bidding process. Who could possibly know why partner sat for 1S. Was partner/ passer a relatively inexperienced player? Perhaps partner said to self, "no double, no trouble"? Who knows? Bet partner said "glp" when dummy was tabled.

dear double_!

If NS's system has no bid to show a hand with one 4card major and a second suit, blame it on the system.

North sees only his 12 hcp, East 's pass suggests less than 6hcp, leaving at least 23 hcp for opener and partner. What can he expect after south first pass?

Take a look at this topic
where they suggest to open 1minor with a 22hcp hand.

So North has every reason to believe that west holds 18+ hcp.

When it is north turn to bid a second time, both east and south have passed his bid.

East should have bid a 4 card major with 6+hcp, but he did not.
If East had none, he holds at least 7 cards in the minors.
If East had a ♣ raise, he would have done it. So East is eather to weak raise or long in ♦.

Does South promise a 5 card major, if bidding after East's pass?
NS took over the bidding, i think bidding a 4card major would be ok, if he's strong enough.
How strong does South need to be?
Since North bid 1♦ i guess bidding double instead, would have shown a stronger hand. With reasonable strength South should have keept the bidding open, as North could be strong. South judged his hand not to be strong enough, to keep the bidding open. I can accept that, ♣ values seem badly placed, and ace of ♠ is just one trick.
Do you think South would have passed with a ♦ void?
I don't think so.


Now West finds a double, he is strong, forcing East to bid, showing shortness in ♦.
Why on earth should north bid now?
If all pass, his 6 looser hand might make 7+ tricks dbled fine.
If East bids, North can make a decision later, as you say he has the spades he can still bid them later.
If South has reason to run, he can do so, even if North passes.

By bidding North avoids any information he could get from East's or South's bidding.
By bidding he implies that it is not a good idea to play ♦.
By bidding he makes sure that South knows the missing ♥ stopper.
By bidding he excludes South from the descision, this is why North is responsible.

Now tell me:

• Why should South bid 2♦ , if North decides better not to play 1♦?
  
• Why should South bid 1NT, knowing there are no enough ♥ stopper and the ♣ values are badly placed?
  
• Why should South bid 2♣, if his LHO opened that suit?
  
• Why should South bid ♥, knowing that opps will have a fit there?

North decided to bid his hand vul.
He decided that even if Partner is weak and West is very strong, he wants to play the hand.

There is no reason to defend against a partscore in R/w. North claimed to be stronger or better distributed than opener., and he is not

[han]

I agree that the pass of 1S was by far the worst call, this doesn't seem very interesting.

But what about east's bidding. I would be tempted to make a negative double with this 5-count. Or is that silly?

[Winstonm]

Doesn't seem too hard....100% to South. North has shown 2 suits, diamonds and spades.....not too hard to look and see which I like better...diamonds with Jx than spades with A - plus pard is longer in diamonds due to the bidding.

Could also, at mp's because a zero doesn't matter so much, bid 2C. Having passed the 1D overcall, this now must be natural featuring at least 6 clubs with no good fit for pard.

For me, I follow my pard's advice. He asked me to pick one of his two suits; I'm bidding 2D.

[luis]

Is this a real question?
South is a criminal.

[HeartA]

This problem is too trivial to be a problem. It's clearly South's fault.

[helium]

luis, on Jan 8 2005, 03:54 PM, said:

Is this a real question?
South is a criminal.

well put:)


kenneth

[firechief]

I don't mind any of north's calls. 1d is fine, 1s is fine. From his point of view, it's nearly certain the opponents will land in hearts soon. I think I might pass the reopening double instead, just in case east had a trap and 1d was the best his side could do, but it's not terrible to bid out. Passing 1s is awful. Even though I might pass the reopening double instead, South gets all the blame, and a weird eye from anyone who witnessed his auction.
Joel