kenrexford, on Feb 6 2006, 03:07 AM, said:
This question was posed to about a dozen extremely successful tournament players, with several different theories.
One doubled.
Three bid one spade, one claiming this was barely enough.
Most passed, claiming this is too weak to bid One Spade.
One claimed anything but pass was insane.
No one bid 1NT.
In commenting, please explain the parameters for a minimum 1S response (whether you did this or did not) and why. If you picked "other" or 1NT or double, please explain also.
Alright, at the cost of sounding too rigid, I'll try to formalize verbally more or les the guidelines I try to follow.
The rules are not that rigid, but I guess you get the idea :-)
In my opinion, a 1S free bid should guarantee:
- either overall 8 hcp, regardles of whether they are quacks or not;
- about 5+ hcp (with at least 1 K)
outside opps suit (unless we hold an Ace in opp suit).
The above requirements can be shaded if we hold extra shape. (55+, or a 6+ bagger). With balanced or semibalanced hands (including 5422), I stick to the listed requirements.
In my opinion this is true especially if pard's opening is not ultrasound.
As I wrote in another post, although I am a big believer in the "In quick/out quick" principle, I have recently experimented with passing such hand types, and the pluses seem to have been superior to the minuses.
Especially, when it's opps' hands, having passed made declarer misguess the side suits much more often.
However, I guess that in a MP anything goes.
"Bridge is like dance: technique's important but what really matters is not to step on partner's feet !"
Playing 2/1 GF or SAYC