ldrews, on 2017-January-25, 16:39, said:
Did you just move the goalposts? What level of fraud would you designate as "rampant" fraud? The popular vote difference was, what, 2-3%? Would that be rampant?
2-3% would indeed be rampant....it would be millions of votes....millions of fraudsters, so...yes....that would be rampant.
Any degree of fraud that has any reasonable likelihood of changing the result of an election would maybe not be 'rampant' as such but would be significant, and there was no evidence....none...that any presidential election since 1960 was determined by fraud. 1960 was still a time of 'machine' politics in many big cities, and there was certainly some doubt as to how legitimate the voting in Chicago was, at the time. Nixon might not have won anyway, but having Chicago in the bag can't have hurt JFK. add in suspicions about Texas, where Lyndon Johnson was an 'old-style' politician, and there were claims that fraud had swung the election. Had Nixon won both Illinois and Texas he would have won 270 electoral votes and won by the narrowest of margins.
Btw, California is home to 3MM illegals, a very significant percentage of those in the country. Texas is next, at 1.5MM. Assume that there were 4-5% fraudulent votes, all for Clinton, in those two states....this would be a huge percentage of trump's fevered numbers of fraudulent votes, and surely plausible....if it were illegals, then surely most would be were there were the most illegals?
What difference would that make? In Texas, trump won by 8%. In California, HRC won by 30%. Trump is a lunatic, a paranoid narcissistic bully with deep insecurities. What's your excuse for these fantasies?
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Are you serious? 37% of the precincts showing more votes than voters! That is not some random machine error.
I can't comment on whether the errors were 'random machine errors'. What I can say, having found media articles about the Michigan recount when it happened, and the discrepancies were discovered, is that the discrepancies were indeed because of machine errors.
As I understand it, in those precincts where machines were in use, a ballot would be completed and then scanned through a machine. Unfortunately as many as half the machines in any one precinct (tho on average fewer) would jam or break, resulting in the machines not capturing all of the ballots.
There is, from the information I was able to find, no suggestion of any deliberate jamming or wrecking of the machines. My own suspicion is that this is what you get from machines that are infrequently used, usually operated by people with only cursory knowledge or training, and in conditions of heavy use. While the articles I reviewed suggested machine error, there were apparently problems due to overloading the machines, suggestive to me, at least, of some degree of human error as well.
Edit: I thank PassedOut for finding actual data aas opposed to media stories: apparently the machine breakdowns didn't have much impact anyway (end edit)
You know, it is so very difficult to have discussions with most (all?) of the right wing contributors here, since so little of the points they make seem based in reality. Did you, for instance, make any effort to look behind the headline that there were more ballots caast than machine-counted, or did you stop with yout intellectual curiosity as soon as you found a headline that appeared to justify your distorted suggestion that this was evidence of fraud?
I would truly enjoy a debate with an informed, honest conservative. I am sure such a person exists somewhere, but nobody meeting that description ever seems to post here, or (for that matter) feature in real world politics. No wonder it is widely believed in many circles that reality has a liberal bias
In fact, it is, or so it appears, that liberals have a reality-bias, while conservatives have sound-bites, lies, and ignorance.
Surprise me: make an evidence-based argument.
'one of the great markers of the advance of human kindness is the howls you will hear from the Men of God' Johann Hari