gordontd, on 2013-June-27, 05:48, said:
In truth I do not think I have seen this happen outside of an auction imposed in a UI ruling. This is not to say that it hasn't, nor that it's not the right agreement, but in practice players usually pass or occasionally raise - especially when they aren't sure of their agreements.
That's certainly true, but that is not the relevant question. The relevant question is: "What does 2
♠ mean when -absent agreement- partner bids it?". The only explanation (other than "partner forgot" or "he is nuts") is "good hearts and something in spades". And absent agreements "something in spades" means values or length.
And -just for the record- you do not need to have agreements on everything. Some things just follow from bridge logic. This is one of them. If I would play natural sign-offs with a good partner without further agreements, I would bid 2
♠ with a hand with good hearts and secondary spades. And I would expect a good partner to understand that.
gordontd, on 2013-June-27, 05:48, said:
Again I agree with your argument, but now I have seen players bid like this (bid 2♠ with 5 spades and 2 hearts), foolish though it may be.
I have seen players bid like that too, but only while they were still in the bridge course. I have never seen anyone do that at the club level or higher.
Rik
I want my opponents to leave my table with a smile on their face and without matchpoints on their score card - in that order.
The most exciting phrase to hear in science, the one that heralds the new discoveries, is not “Eureka!” (I found it!), but “That’s funny…” – Isaac Asimov
The only reason God did not put "Thou shalt mind thine own business" in the Ten Commandments was that He thought that it was too obvious to need stating. - Kenberg