The Loop raising the deads
#1
Posted 2013-February-17, 02:13
After reading fascinating archives of this forum I am left with two questions:
1) What was the official decision (if any) in Fred Gitelman's case four years ago? http://www.bridgebas...k-legal-opinion
2) In the course of the discussion several peoples stated that the Loop is resolved (at least in some jurisdictions) by requiring opening side to state its agreements first; I'm interested in reference to the appropriate rules - can anyone help?
Thank you in advance and sorry for beating old dead horse - it is not that old for some of us
#2
Posted 2013-February-17, 03:11
*weak **strong
#3
Posted 2013-February-17, 04:43
What you are probably trying to say is that it should be defined independently of opposing methods. And that is exactly my second question - which regulation says so?
#4
Posted 2013-February-17, 05:32
If you happen to know that your current opponents' defence does not depend on the strength of 1NT, you are permitted* to use that information to determine which range you will play, but they are under no obligation to use the same defence to both, and if they don't you are stuck.
*that is, it is not forbidden by the laws; your RA may have a regulation requiring you to play the same range against all opponents.
#5
Posted 2013-February-17, 06:09
#6
Posted 2013-February-17, 06:13
campboy, on 2013-February-17, 05:32, said:
Yes, you are stuck and so are they (if you asked first) and it is the Loop.
I'm pretty sure that main body of the Laws does not resolve it. I'm interested in regulations by different RA that do and how they handle it.
#7
Posted 2013-February-17, 08:50
gombo121, on 2013-February-17, 06:13, said:
Their CC will just say "penalty vs weak NT and [conventional meaning] vs strong NT". That is a satisfactory explanation of their agreements. No law entitles you to ask questions before the round starts so if you try that they won't answer. (Well, they're reasonable people so if you want to ask "does 14-16 count as strong" they will tell you but if you ask "does our 1NT count as strong" all you will get is "that depends what range it is".)
There is nothing in the laws or any regulation I have ever heard of which requires them to say unconditionally what defence they are using until after you open 1NT and they hear what range it is. You, on the other hand, need to know what range you're playing before you open 1NT.
#8
Posted 2013-February-17, 09:23
A partnership decides to use weak, preemptive suit openings on the three level when opponents will double three-level openings for takeout and strong three level openings when opponents will double three level openings for penalty. (Or was it the other way round?)
The instructions given to us at a TD seminar was that you cannot vary your opening bids depending on opponents' response structures, and opponents need not make any response agreements until they know what they are defending against.
#9
Posted 2013-February-17, 21:10
#10
Posted 2013-February-18, 00:43
pran, on 2013-February-17, 09:23, said:
A partnership decides to use weak, preemptive suit openings on the three level when opponents will double three-level openings for takeout and strong three level openings when opponents will double three level openings for penalty. (Or was it the other way round?)
I know you are joking about the "other way round". Good one.
#11
Posted 2013-February-18, 06:15
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#12
Posted 2013-February-18, 09:23
You could try harder with your conditional definition, but I think it can always be negated, for rather similar reasons that if you could travel back in time you could kill your father before you were born. For example, if I put something in my defence something like "but something else if they use conditional methods", I've probably just made your attempt at conditionality incomplete or paradoxical.
So I think I would always reject conditional methods, ie conditional upon the defence selected, as being impossible to define properly.
Basically I think people who try to have methods conditional upon defences are relying on their opponents not having the time/effort fully to specify their defences to make that nugatory.
#13
Posted 2013-February-18, 09:32
#14
Posted 2013-February-18, 09:41
Zelandakh, on 2013-February-18, 09:32, said:
No you can't play that.
But what about this one:
NS: our 1♣ opening is natural and forcing, 13+ (Fantunes style).
EW: ok, we play strong pass against that, with 1♥ as a fert overcall.
NS: ok, in that case our 1♣ opening is obviously nonforcing.
EW: too late! You are invoking the loop!
Here NS could argue that the description of their 1♣ opening as 13+ natural is enough. That it is forcing is something that falls under the description of responses (i.e. the description of the response "pass" is "nonexistent"), but they can vary that on the basis of what the intervening pass means. A response is a defense against opener's LHO's pass, and you can play different defenses against that pass depending on what it means.
So I would go with NS here.
#15
Posted 2013-February-18, 10:08
helene_t, on 2013-February-18, 09:41, said:
Why not? It is a complete description of methods given receipt of a complete set of opps' methods and never results in a loop.
#16
Posted 2013-February-18, 11:42
iviehoff, on 2013-February-18, 09:23, said:
(playing devil's advocate)
Why do you think it fails to define our methods? It's our complete agreement, we have nothing else. There is no requirement for our agreements to be good, or complete, or anything like that. There only requirement is full disclosure - we disclosed agreemnets completely, now take any conclusion you can. If you can't - too bad, nothing can be done about that.
You may think it is impasse equivalent to "no agreements-no agreements" and both sides are equally disadvantaged - think again! As opener I still can open 1NT and thoguh partner would not know my range we are unlikely to get to some completely ridiculuos contract. On the other hand, penalty double and conventional double are very different and opponents are bound to get lost if they venture into the bidding.
#17
Posted 2013-February-18, 11:45
bluejak, on 2013-February-18, 06:15, said:
Аs I just mention above, they preempt and when you ask what kind of preemts they are playing they tell you "we agreed to use strong if opposition plays penalty double and weak if they use take-out". Are you feeling comfortable?
#18
Posted 2013-February-18, 11:53
gombo121, on 2013-February-18, 11:45, said:
I don't "use takeout" or "use penalty" - I use both in different situations.
What do kind of preempts do you play against someone who doubles weak 2s for penalty and strong 2s for takeout?
I don't play the same defence against intermediate-weak natural 2s, multi 2D or acol artifical 2C. Why should you assume I play the same defence to strong and weak natural twos?
#19
Posted 2013-February-18, 12:11
mjj29, on 2013-February-18, 11:53, said:
(still playing devil's advocate)
No agreement (undiscussed). Yes, kinda foolish on our part but there is nothing we can do about that at the moment.
#20
Posted 2013-February-18, 12:29
gombo121, on 2013-February-18, 12:11, said:
No agreement (undiscussed). Yes, kinda foolish on our part but there is nothing we can do about that at the moment.
Well, we'll have asked you this at the start, so we'll make you discuss it before the hand starts. Alternatively, I think the director will be sympathetic at making you leave the table and have your partner tell us what his bid means. I don't think you'll get away with 'undiscussed' here.