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All red, you hold:
♠J
♥3
♦AKQ97
♣Q97643
After two passes, how would you treat this hand? Would you open 1♣ or 1♦?
Let's say it goes:
Pa-Pa-1♣-1♠
1NT-2♠-???
What would you bid then?
Pa-Pa-1♣-1♠
1NT-2♠-3♦-3♠
X-Pa-???
How about then?
I understand you wouldn't get to any of these sequences but let's say you were sent to a table and the opponents refuse to redeal...
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How about this? How would you treat it?
#1
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Posted 2010-July-10, 20:26
wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:
Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the ♥3.
rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:
Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win
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#2
- 2011 Poster of The Year winner
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Posted 2010-July-10, 21:51
Would have opened 1D, now I bid 3C.
Would sit for the double.
Would sit for the double.
blogging at http://www.justinlall.com
#3
- Andy Bowles
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Posted 2010-July-11, 02:43
The disparity of the suits, our overall weakness, and being opposite a passed hand are just enough to make me open 1♦.
Having opened 1♣, over 2♠ I'd bid 2NT, showing a two-suiter with one of the red suits.
I'm not answering the last question. If I had sat down part way through the auction and been presented with this auction, I would simply stand up again.
Having opened 1♣, over 2♠ I'd bid 2NT, showing a two-suiter with one of the red suits.
I'm not answering the last question. If I had sat down part way through the auction and been presented with this auction, I would simply stand up again.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
#4
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Posted 2010-July-11, 02:56
I generally hate opening the 5 card suit rather than the 6 card suit but I think with 5-6 in the minors and a weak hand its mandatory, you cannot control the auction when you have the minors. I think with 5H and 6D it is also often right if the hearts are much better than the diamonds.
With AKQxx of diamonds and partner being a passed hand it seems like a no brainer to me, we get the right lead director in when they are extremely likely to play the hand. Getting to the wrong suit when partner is 2-2 or w/e is just not a concern at all, we won't be playing it unless he fits one minor really well.
With AKQxx of diamonds and partner being a passed hand it seems like a no brainer to me, we get the right lead director in when they are extremely likely to play the hand. Getting to the wrong suit when partner is 2-2 or w/e is just not a concern at all, we won't be playing it unless he fits one minor really well.
blogging at http://www.justinlall.com
#5
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Posted 2010-July-11, 04:59
Having decided this hand is 1C and 2D reverse, bid it out. 4D.
#6
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Posted 2010-July-11, 13:28
Perfer to open 1♦ to prevent the rebid problems that ended up happening 
Anyway, 3♦ and pull pard's double to 4♣.
Anyway, 3♦ and pull pard's double to 4♣.
#7
- Tubthumper
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Posted 2010-July-11, 19:09
I would have opened this one diamond, for the lead if nothing else. This is not a reverse hand for me, even with 6-5 I feel like I should have more values.
Chris Gibson
#8
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Posted 2010-July-11, 23:25
Frankly I think opening 1♣ was awful.
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
#9
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Posted 2010-July-11, 23:35
I think it's a clear 1♣ opening followed by bidding ♦ twice and at the four-level if necessary. The opponents can surely make 4 of a major whilst 5 of our minor is unlikely to be worse than -2.
The last scenario is exactly how the auction would've gone at my table and I would've ripped the double to 4♦. If the opponents bid 4♠ and partner doubles it, I'll pass as partner knows that I'm at least 6-5 in the minors but has still judged to double it.
The last scenario is exactly how the auction would've gone at my table and I would've ripped the double to 4♦. If the opponents bid 4♠ and partner doubles it, I'll pass as partner knows that I'm at least 6-5 in the minors but has still judged to double it.
Disclaimer: The above post may be a half-baked sarcastic rant intended to stimulate discussion and it does not necessarily coincide with my own views on this topic.
I ♦ bidding the suit below the suit I'm actually showing not to be described as a "transfer" for the benefit of people unfamiliar with the concept of a transfer
I ♦ bidding the suit below the suit I'm actually showing not to be described as a "transfer" for the benefit of people unfamiliar with the concept of a transfer
#10
- - - T98765432 AQT8
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Posted 2010-July-11, 23:37
He also thought you had a good hand and he is fairly likely to make a bad lead to boot!
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
#11
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Posted 2010-July-12, 00:13
Hanoi5, on Jul 10 2010, 09:26 PM, said:
All red, you hold:
♠J
♥3
♦AKQ97
♣Q97643
After two passes, how would you treat this hand? Would you open 1♣ or 1♦?
Let's say it goes:
Pa-Pa-1♣-1♠
1NT-2♠-???
What would you bid then?
Pa-Pa-1♣-1♠
1NT-2♠-3♦-3♠
X-Pa-???
How about then?
I understand you wouldn't get to any of these sequences but let's say you were sent to a table and the opponents refuse to redeal...
♠J
♥3
♦AKQ97
♣Q97643
After two passes, how would you treat this hand? Would you open 1♣ or 1♦?
Let's say it goes:
Pa-Pa-1♣-1♠
1NT-2♠-???
What would you bid then?
Pa-Pa-1♣-1♠
1NT-2♠-3♦-3♠
X-Pa-???
How about then?
I understand you wouldn't get to any of these sequences but let's say you were sent to a table and the opponents refuse to redeal...
1d
why? it is my strongest suit.....
\of course i may have problems but we know that :
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