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Optional Bids Basic 2/1 or SAYC bidding

#1 User is offline   JeffMorrow 

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Posted Yesterday, 19:56

So, my basic question is this. Suppoe you are first to bid and you hold 3=2=4=4 or 2=3=4=4 with 12-14 hcp. The bidding goes 1D, (P), 1M, (P), ?. You are playing SAYC or 2/1 GF. Must opener rebid 1N or may opener rebid 2C?

Is there a difference between SAYC and 2/1 GF? Assuming there is a choice between 1N and 2C, is there any reliable inference for responder to make if opener’s rebid is 2C in addition to the obvious ones that opener has 4+ diamonds, 4+ clubs, and 17- points? In particular, is it a reasonable inference that opener is weak in the unbid major? Does it make any difference whether opener is in third or fourth seat?
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#2 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted Yesterday, 21:16

You must rebid one no trump
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#3 User is online   mycroft 

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Posted Yesterday, 21:51

In this century, the response is "bid NT with balanced hands". If you can't do it with your opening, do it with your rebid.

You have three small in the other major and they'll cash 5 of them? Well, in 1NT, that's still making 2. In 3NT, partner has 12 or 13 and the chance you don't have a stopper is small. Or they're 4=4 (remember, they didn't bid the suit the first round). Or partner can do some checking to see if there's a better spot. Or...

You have two small in the other major? Okay, by agreement (and I do mean *agreement*, don't pull this on somebody without talking about it first, unless you've seen them do it with other partners in a similar situation), raise to 2M with 3. The big reason to have that agreement is that there are tools out there to discover, before getting to 4M, if you're on a 4-3 fit, and the agreement can include investigating or discussing those tools. (okay, the other big reason to not do it without agreement is that Moysians are hard to play, 12 opposite 8 Moysians doubly so, and partners who don't expect to be in one have a tendency to not play them to the best of their ability - and blame you for the result).

The scoring system is such (especially at matchpoints) that even if you *do* have a minor fit, even a *good* minor fit, you score better in another contract if there's no competition (in competitive auctions, "strive to show a fit", even if it's a minor. The reasons for that - are at least as long as the rest of this.) And so when you do bid 1-1M; 2 you are not just showing concern about a suit for NT, you are actively showing an unbalanced hand. And (32)=4=4 just isn't. You are painting the wrong picture in partner's mind, and they will do the wrong thing, if you treat your (32)(44) as a (13)(54).
Long live the Republic-k. -- Major General J. Golding Frederick (tSCoSI)
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#4 User is online   awm 

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Posted Today, 03:44

The general advice we give Elianna's bridge students is:

Stop looking for reasons not to bid notrump and instead look for reasons to bid notrump. If opening (or rebidding) 1NT is reasonable, it's probably the right action. This is because it simplifies the auction a lot -- you limit your point range and give partner a much better approximation of your distribution, plus most pairs are on more solid ground with their bidding methods after notrump openings/rebids than in almost any other auction.

Obviously it's possible to take this too far (i.e. don't open 1NT with a small singleton or 5-5 in two suits) but in my experience a lot of beginners/intermediates seem to be scared of 1NT and look for excuses to avoid it ("oh I had a five card minor"... "oh I didn't have a stopper in every unbid suit") and this is basically the opposite of the most effective strategy.
Adam W. Meyerson
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
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#5 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted Today, 05:48

Hi,

the difference between an openers 1NT and suit rebid is, that the NT rebid usually
gives a tighter description of openers hand, it usually
#1 tightens the HCP range better, 1NT showes 12-14, the suit rebid is 10/11-15/16
#2 showes more suited cards, 1NT showes at least 8 (2 in each suit) + promised
card due to length in the opened suit, the suit rebid showes only 5/6+
#3 system is usually better defined after a 1NT rebid, it gives responder more space
to describe his hand

and last but not least: The suit rebid is the default rebid, if nothing else fits,
and if you have an alternative to the default, go for the alternative, otherwise you
weaken the implication of choosing the default even more.

To a certain degree, I just spelled out the reason behind awns recommendation to students
he and his wife are teaching.
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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