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partners bid 2 hearts

#1 User is offline   maris oren 

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Posted 2021-October-12, 13:11

Partner opened 1 , showing 4+. I responded 1. Nt. He rebid 2. What is the meaning of this bid?
Opponents didn't bid
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#2 User is offline   LBengtsson 

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Posted 2021-October-12, 14:04

View Postmaris oren, on 2021-October-12, 13:11, said:

Partner opened 1 , showing 4+. I responded 1. Nt. He rebid 2. What is the meaning of this bid?
Opponents didn't bid


You bid 1Nt instead of 4 card major suit. partner knows this. his 2 shows shape of 5+ and at least 4 (could be 65 hand) with about 17+ points and bid is forcing. you need to say whether you have some support for suit (3 or 4 card) by bidding either 3/4 depending on strength, or whether your hand is 3325 by bidding 2NT, maybe 3Nt if you hand is maximum.

you could use control of 2 bid , or maybe 3 after 2 looking for 3nt contract depending on your methods. some may play 3 as suit here depending on agreements with 3316 hand but I prefer control.
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#3 User is offline   Winstonm 

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Posted 2021-October-12, 18:15

It means the same thing it would have if you had bid 1spade.
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#4 User is online   smerriman 

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Posted 2021-October-12, 18:40

View PostWinstonm, on 2021-October-12, 18:15, said:

It means the same thing it would have if you had bid 1spade.

This is something I've always wondered.

It's actually quite a different scenario, since if partner reverses into 2 over 1, he's still hopeful of finding a 4-4 heart fit, while reversing into a 4 card heart suit over 1NT is done with the knowledge that such a fit can't exist.

It obviously doesn't promise any more than 4 hearts, but I'm not sure it should be done on exactly the same set of hands, or whether you should play the same lebensohl type followups.
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#5 User is offline   Winstonm 

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Posted 2021-October-12, 19:12

View Postsmerriman, on 2021-October-12, 18:40, said:

This is something I've always wondered.

It's actually quite a different scenario, since if partner reverses into 2 over 1, he's still hopeful of finding a 4-4 heart fit, while reversing into a 4 card heart suit over 1NT is done with the knowledge that such a fit can't exist.

It obviously doesn't promise any more than 4 hearts, but I'm not sure it should be done on exactly the same set of hands, or whether you should play the same lebensohl type followups.


It means the same insofar as all you are doing is bidding your hand, showing your extra strength and at least 45 in those two suits. And as an aside point, every discussion about reverses reminds me of something I read years and years ago that the reason a reverse shows extra values is not because some bridge god so declared but due to the absolute fact that to take a preference to the first suit raises the level of the auction.

That said, when partner responds 1NT you are less likely to reverse a little light because of say a holding of Kxx in spades.

PS: Another aside is the notion that a 1NT response does not mean you cannot play in 4H as the Moysian may be the best contract.


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#6 User is offline   apollo1201 

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Posted 2021-October-13, 12:23

By reversing, partner showed extra values and doubts about being in game or not, and if game, which one (3NT, 5D or even 4H sometimes with very strong red suits your side and a wide open black).

Presumably with a semi-balanced hand, partner could have bid 2 or 3NT depending on his strength and the range your bid promised (6-10 for most). So a black singleton is highly likely.

It is now your duty to tell him I dont want to be in game or try reaching one (partner is somewhere between 17 and 22 more or less), where your values are, if you fancy his D, etc.

Methods might vary between pairs (« moderator » 2NT or not, etc.).

*edit*
From your other post, I guess partner reversed with just 14 HCPs, 5422 or 5431 and that you ended up in a hopeless 3NT, down a lot. This one seems definitely on your partner.
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#7 User is offline   nige1 

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Posted 2021-October-13, 15:13


Maris Oren ' Partner opened 1 , showing 4+. I responded 1. Nt. He rebid 2. What is the meaning of this bid? Opponents didn't bid
++++++++++++++++++I
IMO, Over the 2 Reverse, (explained in auction), most partnerships agree an artificial weak rebid by responder (e.g. 2 = Blackout or 2N = Lebensohl). Other rebids = G/F.

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#8 User is offline   Gilithin 

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Posted 2021-October-20, 17:45

View Postmaris oren, on 2021-October-12, 13:11, said:

Partner opened 1 , showing 4+. I responded 1. Nt. He rebid 2. What is the meaning of this bid?
Opponents didn't bid

It shows invitational or better values and one of these 3 hand types:-

1. 4+ hearts and longer diamonds
2. 3 hearts and 6+ diamonds that are too weak for a 3 rebid
3. 3 hearts and 6+ diamonds in a game forcing hand

Responder should always assume #1 as this is the normal hand type and Opener will have a plan for how the auction should develop with a diamond one-suiter.
Type #2 is disallowed by some pairs, who either do not use suit quality for their 3 rebid or treat the suit as 5 cards and rebid 2NT.
Type #3 is often overlooked but it this is by far the most popular way of handling such a hand in natural bidding. Opener will keep forcing until they know where to place the contract or choose to make a cooperative slam try.
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