At the time, I bid 3NT, gambling on K109x being a stop and a half. I think this was a mistake but it is not clear to me what the best bid is. 2♦ seems like an underbid and 3♦ seems like an overbid. If it please the court, I am interested in your opinion about this first, then I will post the rest of the hand because I have a further question.
Interesting? I dunno, but it's a hand Mainly wanna know where we went wrong...
#1
Posted 2005-May-18, 06:40
At the time, I bid 3NT, gambling on K109x being a stop and a half. I think this was a mistake but it is not clear to me what the best bid is. 2♦ seems like an underbid and 3♦ seems like an overbid. If it please the court, I am interested in your opinion about this first, then I will post the rest of the hand because I have a further question.
#2
Posted 2005-May-18, 06:53
#3
Posted 2005-May-18, 06:56
#4
Posted 2005-May-18, 07:23
#6
Posted 2005-May-18, 08:28
#7
Posted 2005-May-18, 09:14
#8
Posted 2005-May-18, 10:00
Free, on May 18 2005, 03:14 PM, said:
Well, if pard has a weakish hand, like say
xx
Kxxx
xx
Kxxxx
he'll probably take you out of 3NT anyway.
#9
Posted 2005-May-18, 10:18
Next hand.
#10
Posted 2005-May-18, 10:39
3D, wtp?
You have diamonds and you have compensationg values for
your lack of HCP.
If you bid 3NT, you will go down, if you catch partner with a
void in spades, of course you may survive after a spade
lead, but this is not sure, since you only hold the king.
And since you are weak, in the sense of HCP, there
is a chance that West holds a good enough Clubs
inducing him to atack clubs immediatly.
And if West still attacks spade, most of the time East will
find the switch.
If your partner is interested in aspade stopper he can and
he will ask.
With kind regards
Marlowe
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
#11
Posted 2005-May-18, 16:12
After 3NT, partner bid 4NT. (In the style of this particular partner,) I judged this to be for aces only and bid 5♦. By this time, partner was rather confused and elected to sign off in 5NT by way of a 5♠ bid (which was doubled by east.) We played it there for a poor score. So, opinions please. Was partner's 4NT justified? If a slam try is called for, is there a better call than 4NT? 4♠ maybe?
Further, I would be interested in opinions regarding handling this hand versus a strong balanced hand of the type that might bid 3NT naturally on the given auction. Clearly, if you could bid 3NT with either hand, partner needs some way to distinquish between them. Could you use 4♠ over 3NT as a sort of Last Train bid ?
#12
Posted 2005-May-18, 16:39
#13
Posted 2005-May-19, 01:19
Btw, I have no convention to ask partner for half a club stopper so I just bid 3NT.
I like your 5♦ bid, too. If 4NT is quanti then 5♦ is natural. If 4NT is Blackwood, 5♦ is one ace (hopefully it isn't RKC for diamonds?).
#14
Posted 2005-May-19, 02:11
showing something around the lines of
11-13, with 3 NT you promised already the
equivalent of 18/19 HCP.
Which means, partner, should probbaly bid
6 NT right away.
Asking partner to bid 6D instead of ??? is a
bit unrealsitic, because one did promise only
a 3 card suit.
and nobody knows what 5D as answer to 4NT means,
since 4NT could also be quantitaive ace asking,
i.e. one only answers in case of maximum values.
With kind regards
Marlowe
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
#15
Posted 2005-May-19, 02:33
P_Marlowe, on May 19 2005, 10:11 AM, said:
bit unrealsitic, because one did promise only
a 3 card suit.
No, Rebound promised a 6(7?)-card suit. With 18-19 he would have bid 2NT (or doubled with 3-card support if playing support doubles).
#16
Posted 2005-May-19, 05:01
#17
Posted 2005-May-19, 05:10
Kxx
x
AKQxxxx
xx
The club queen is an extra which pard could not know of.
Unless you have bidding tools to find out about extras, a pass to 3NT is a very sensible action (count 11 tricks, maybe only 10 if opener has Qxx instead of Kxx in spades).
#18
Posted 2005-May-19, 06:01
#19
Posted 2005-May-19, 16:28
Let me offer some old fashioned opinions from the Great White North.
With regard to your first problem.
How can 3NT we considered wrong?
a.) Partner more or less guarantees 5 HCP and has an expectancy of 8 HCP.
b.) You are looking at 8 tricks in you own hand.
The only con is that your hand outside of diamonds is very slow. This generates some extra cases where they can get five tricks before you get nine. Say, spade to the ace, a spade back toward the Q on your left, AND you are off the club AK and the heart A. Another is a club out, and you win, but they cash four clubs and the heart ace when you lead toward the spade K. Remember that your expectancy for combined HCP in your two hands is only 23, not enough to make 3NT on power alone.
If you want to fool around with this hand, you could pass or bid 1NT with the idea of walking the dog to ambush the opponents with your undisclosed diamond runner. IMO 3 diamonds is misleading and tactically worthless.
With regard to your second question.
Partner's 4NT bid should be QUANTITATIVE - no discussion allowed, you either know how to play bridge or you don't. If you play Gerber, she can ask with 4 clubs. With the actual hand, she should assume you have the big balanced hand - after all, she is looking at the spade ace, the one card you would usually have with a long suit runner. She is also looking at 14 top quality HCP and a potential trick source in clubs. The arithmetic is 18+14, 19+14, or 20+14, not enough for 7NT on power alone. Still, with all those controls, it is right to investigate the grand, with the idea of bailing out into 6NT if you don't get enthusiastic. Start with 4 spades.
Now, you can take control by bidding 4NT - Blackwood this time. Missing an ace, you sign off at six diamonds. Now partner should know (or, at least, strongly suspect) you are on a diamond runner, but in that case, she can only count 11 tricks in NT - two spades, two hearts and seven diamonds, plus her club king is not protected on the opening lead. Partner will pass, and you should do OK.

Help

Auction: you're South
E - S - W - N
P - 1♦ - P - 1♥
1♠ - ?