EW play Polish Club: 1C = 12-14 BAL, 15+ clubs, or 18+ any. Result 2H by N -1, N/S -50, lead DQ
I was called after dummy was displayed as it had come to light that the 1D bid should have been alerted, showing 0-7 points. It was not alerted during the auction and NS claimed they had arrived in the wrong contract as a result of misinformation. I instructed the table to play out the hand and call me back at the end if they thought there was damage, which they did.
I asked South why she had passed 2H on the actual auction and she said that she expected North to have a weak jump overcall type hand in hearts. She had decided her diamonds were not particularly useful opposite such a hand, having supposedly been bid naturally on her left. She was unable to advise whether the meaning of 2H would still be the case over 1D showing 0-7.
I judged that South was likely to bid 3D on the second round had she known 1D was not natural, thus showing a good single-suited hand (note that, for whatever reason, it's common for players to play double-then-bid as about 16+ here in NZ) and North would then bid 3NT. However, I also took into account the fact that NS clearly had a misunderstanding over 2H and there was a chance of that occurring, i.e. South still passing, even if 1D had been explained correctly. Applying the usual guideline of being favourable to the NOS in weighted scores, I therefore adjusted the score to:
60% of 3NT by North +2, N/S +460
40% of the table result (N/S -50)
which came out to be about 51% for NS.
E/W commented they felt not many would bid game on this board, which I felt was surprising, but actually was borne out by the results at other tables with only one other table reaching 3NT+2. Aside from one pair who scored 2200 defending 1NTXX, all others were in minor-suit partscores. Nonetheless, I felt after the given start of (1C)-X and the likely followup of 3D it was almost certain North would bid 3NT.
Any comments/suggestions on my ruling?
Thanks,
ahydra