ArtK78, on 2014-June-05, 10:00, said:
Of course any systemic way of discovering if the 1NT opener has a singleton is illegal.
By itself? Why?
Could you refer to any regulation to confirm your opinion?
ArtK78, on 2014-June-05, 10:00, said:
The mere existence of such a method implies that there is an agreement to open 1NT with a singleton.
This make much more sense.
Existing of this methods may be a
proof that pair has illegal agreement to open 1NT with singleton. (Of course if agreement to open 1NT with otherwise balanced hand and singleton honor is illegal). But as a proof it is not any better of worse than other evidence. I believe it will not be too hard to check archives and collect the evidence that the number of top players opened 1NT with the singleton honor often enough to make it implicit agreement. Do they all play illegal methods too?
ArtK78, on 2014-June-05, 10:00, said:
In a sense, it is the same as a psychic control - a bid used to determine if the bidder's partner has psyched. The psych itself is not illegal - with the exception of psychs of artificial calls, no psych is illegal. However, any method used to find out if the bid is a psych is illegal.
Difference is huge. Bluff is legal. Psychic control is illegal. That is it. We have regulation that makes any agreements to control psychs illegal. We do not need to look for any logic or for any analogies. Any methods to find out if the bid was psych is illegal by regulation. Period.
In our case there is no regulation to make follow up constructive bid illegal. Logic is exactly reversed. We have no limitation for the agreements about second bids, but our original bid maybe illegal. If our original bid indeed was illegal, questions about legality of our agreements about the second bid make no sense. The original illegal bid was enough to null the situation. But if our agreements about the original bid was legal, subsequent agreement cannot make it illegal. There is no analogies or better to say that existing analogy is misleading.
And one more. I believe I wrote it in some earlier post, sorry for repeating.
Lets take your example with psychic control. It is possible that bidding would go such a way that partner of psychic bidder was able to recognize the psych. He did not used any special psychic control bids, but opener made a subsequent bid that not possible according their system and responder was able to deduct that original bid was psych. Responder scratched his head and replied on your answer: "There is no such bidding possible. The only explanation according our system - he psyched originally." Are you going to call it psych control? I purposely make an unlucky wording; people in general are not lawyers and not linguists. (It is possible that original bid was not psych and they have illegal agreement and you have all rights to call director and report psych, but there is no psych control).
This post has been edited by olegru: 2014-June-05, 12:29