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Passed hand splinter

Poll: Passed hand splinter (35 member(s) have cast votes)

What now?

  1. RDbl (1st round control) (16 votes [45.71%])

    Percentage of vote: 45.71%

  2. Pass (waiting) (1 votes [2.86%])

    Percentage of vote: 2.86%

  3. 4H (last train - what does it mean here?) (6 votes [17.14%])

    Percentage of vote: 17.14%

  4. 4S (signoff) (12 votes [34.29%])

    Percentage of vote: 34.29%

  5. 4NT (RKC) (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  6. something else - please explain (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

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#1 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2011-January-31, 07:13



Your call?
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#2 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2011-January-31, 11:24

At our table the bidding started:
Pass-1
3-3
4-??
- 3=10-11 with an unknown shortage
- 3=asks
- 4=singleton
(I don't think that opps did bid at our table).
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#3 User is offline   manudude03 

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Posted 2011-January-31, 11:44

I'm signing off, will apologise if partner has Kxxx xxxx x AKxx.

ps. kgr, why do you need a 4th step when there are only 3 possible singletons? One of them showing a void?
Wayne Somerville
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#4 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2011-January-31, 12:40

 manudude03, on 2011-January-31, 11:44, said:

I'm signing off, will apologise if partner has Kxxx xxxx x AKxx.

ps. kgr, why do you need a 4th step when there are only 3 possible singletons? One of them showing a void?

Yes; after 3 inquiry the 3 bid is showing a void and 3NT then asks the void.

EDIT: I think that 4H asks a Club control.
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#5 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2011-February-01, 04:52

4S - move the Ace of diamonds to another suit, and I would make another try.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#6 User is offline   Lurpoa 

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Posted 2011-February-01, 06:22

 Free, on 2011-January-31, 07:13, said:



Your call?



Bidding 4 in this situation would show an absolute minimum 1 opening, probably with wasted values in .
And with this hand, I surely want to help P in his search for slam.

Rdble after this sequence cannot be a suggestion to play 4XX: it is showing a control in and in light of P's single (or void) it is the Ace.
4, would deny first round control in and show a 1st or 2nd round control in H.

Bob Herreman
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#7 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2011-February-01, 06:33

 kgr, on 2011-January-31, 11:24, said:

At our table the bidding started:
Pass-1
3-3
4-??
- 3=10-11 with an unknown shortage
- 3=asks
- 4=singleton
(I don't think that opps did bid at our table).

And the bidding continued:
Pass-1
3-3
4-4
5-6
- For me 4 asked a control
- I think that 4 followed by 5 (iso 6) is describing this hand
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#8 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2011-February-01, 09:26

 Free, on 2011-January-31, 07:13, said:



Your call?

Assuming no trick loss in Trumps, you can make the
XX after the X of partner's 4D! splinter..... showing the ACE.

Then if partner cuebids 4,
you could then make the 5-of-trump bid ( 5S! ) asking for the Cl Ctrl ( the unbid suit ).

With no Ht Ctrl bid by partner, then sign-off in 4S.

Slam possibility with:
K x x x,   K x x x,   x,   K J x x

or good chances even with:
Q x x x,   K Q x x,   x,   K x x x
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#9 User is offline   nigel_k 

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Posted 2011-February-01, 13:01

4. Cue bid not last train. I don't use last train when we have the whole five level still available.

This gives partner a chance to bid on if his hand is really good and I prefer it to redouble because I mainly care about a club control and how good partner's hand is. If I redouble and partner has no heart control he will nearly always bid 4, e.g. Kxxx xxxx x AKxx.
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#10 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2011-February-01, 17:34

 TWO4BRIDGE, on 2011-February-01, 09:26, said:

or good chances even with:
Q x x x,   K Q x x,   x,   K x x x


:)


Its indeed a very good hand with 14 hcp, 3 aces and 6 card trump. But those who are adventurous about this slam has to find pd with Kxxx or less in order to have a shot at it. If pd has KQJx KQxx slam is very unlikely. In general i dont like my shortness vs a stiff. I can ruff only 1. I would probably be more ambitious if i had Axx
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#11 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2011-February-01, 18:36

Sorry but I think people envisioning slam are having a pipe dream. We need Kxxx from partner, plus club fillers and a working 11 count with a stiff I expect partner to have opened the bidding with. I think this is an easy 4
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#12 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2011-February-02, 02:29

 nigel_k, on 2011-February-01, 13:01, said:

4. Cue bid not last train. I don't use last train when we have the whole five level still available.

This gives partner a chance to bid on if his hand is really good and I prefer it to redouble because I mainly care about a club control and how good partner's hand is. If I redouble and partner has no heart control he will nearly always bid 4, e.g. Kxxx xxxx x AKxx.

Then 4 asks a control. Do you think that partner should always bid 5 over it with A (and with K)?
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#13 User is offline   Lurpoa 

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Posted 2011-February-02, 04:45

Did not notice that 4 is on a passed hand.

No, have to agree that slam is far away, P need too much for his 11H.
N, no adventure: 4.
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#14 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2011-February-02, 04:47

Suppose you RDbl, how would you interpret the following bids from partner, and how would you continue?
- 4 = ? (last train agreed)
- 4 = ?
- 5 = ?
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#15 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2011-February-02, 10:04

 kgr, on 2011-January-31, 11:24, said:

At our table the bidding started:
Pass-1
3-3
4-??
- 3=10-11 with an unknown shortage
- 3=asks
- 4=singleton
(I don't think that opps did bid at our table).

If you understand each other then that's the most important, but having no meaning for 3NT over 3is bad space consuming.
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#16 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2011-February-02, 10:15

 Fluffy, on 2011-February-02, 10:04, said:

 kgr, on 2011-January-31, 11:24, said:

At our table the bidding started:
Pass-1
3-3
4-??
- 3=10-11 with an unknown shortage
- 3=asks
- 4=singleton
(I don't think that opps did bid at our table).

If you understand each other then that's the most important, but having no meaning for 3NT over 3is bad space consuming.

After 3:
3=void => 3NT asks which void
3NT=singleton other Major
4/4=singleton /
PS: Is it possible to do this nested quoting without manipulating the post (copy/past from other post)
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#17 User is offline   nigel_k 

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Posted 2011-February-02, 13:50

 kgr, on 2011-February-02, 02:29, said:

Then 4 asks a control. Do you think that partner should always bid 5 over it with A (and with K)?

No. If I only need a club control and nothing else I can try one more time. Partner should continue with a suitable hand, whatever he thinks that is. An ace and two kings would certainly qualify. Something like KQxx QJxx x Kxxx would not.
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#18 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2011-February-03, 02:26

 Fluffy, on 2011-February-02, 10:04, said:

If you understand each other then that's the most important, but having no meaning for 3NT over 3is bad space consuming.

3NT is shortness.
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#19 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2011-February-03, 07:46

 Free, on 2011-February-02, 04:47, said:

Suppose you RDbl, how would you interpret the following bids from partner, and how would you continue?
- 4 = ? (last train agreed)
- 4 = ?
- 5 = ?

Anyone care to respond to these questions?
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#20 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2011-February-03, 10:50

 Free, on 2011-February-02, 04:47, said:

Suppose you RDbl, how would you interpret the following bids from partner, and how would you continue?
- 4 = ? (last train agreed)
- 4 = ?
- 5 = ?

4=control (I don't play last train if the hand rather good defined)
4=No -control
5=No -control; extra's. (Eg K and AK)
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