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1D-(4H)-4N What is it?

#1 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2011-January-19, 20:25

I was kibitzing/commentating the Australian Youth Butler when this auction came up:

What should this mean?


As an additional question, what would you bid with the actual hand:



Assume a standardish 2/1 with 15-17 NT.
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#2 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2011-January-19, 23:51

It is most useful as long clubs and diamond support, a hand similiar to one you showed. I would like a little more in the way of controls, or the vulnerability to be reversed, but I would at least consider it with the hand you held.

In a pickup game with an average player, I would probably assume it to be blackwood however, because what it should be and what people play it as is, unfortunately, two completely different things.
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#3 User is offline   jillybean 

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Posted 2011-January-20, 00:41

If 4N is '&'s how would you ask for aces in this sequence 1 (4) ?

Why not bid 5 with long clubs and diamond support and keep 4N for the Ace ask? I doubt you would need 5 for exclusion or anything here.
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#4 User is offline   dake50 

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Posted 2011-January-20, 01:10

Long clubs with D-fit.
But much stronger slammy than this -- 4-fit + 1xA?
This hand just bids 5D.
Keep partner trusting other bids are slammy.
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#5 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2011-January-20, 01:34

View Postjillybean, on 2011-January-20, 00:41, said:

Why not bid 5 with long clubs and diamond support and keep 4N for the Ace ask? I doubt you would need 5 for exclusion or anything here.


Because there are hands where u have only suit and strong hand, without s.



To me this is RKCB. (With a pick up pd) I do not seek precision after a heavy preempt like this.

With the hand u gave, i would suck it up and pass.

But i think i can be convinced to play supp +
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#6 User is offline   mich-b 

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Posted 2011-January-20, 01:36

4NT here should show a fit , with longer s , similar to the actual hand, though probably stronger.
Amazingly my pd held almost the same hand this week in a BBO match , and chose to double , reasoning that if I bid 4 he would correct to 5. This turned out to be a great success since I had 4432 with KQJ9...

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#7 User is offline   quiddity 

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Posted 2011-January-20, 03:29

weird, I would have assumed natural (especially at this vul).
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#8 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2011-January-20, 03:57

If it goes 1X - (4Y) then 4NT is:

- RKC if Y is lower than X.

- a 2-suiter if Y is higher than X.

I think JLOGIC taught me this rule, it's not mine Phil!
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#9 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2011-January-20, 04:00

I would also use Han's rule.
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#10 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-January-20, 05:58

View Posthan, on 2011-January-20, 03:57, said:

If it goes 1X - (4Y) then 4NT is:

- RKC if Y is lower than X.

- a 2-suiter if Y is higher than X.

I think JLOGIC taught me this rule, it's not mine Phil!

Which two suits are shown by 1 (4) 4NT? And why is it right to play 1 (4) 4NT as RKC but 1 (4) 4NT as two suits?

My rule [edited to correct transposition between majors and minors] would be

- RKC if Y is a minor

- a 2-suiter if Y is a major

That also covers 1 (4) and 1 (4), which are undefined in Not Han's Rule.

This post has been edited by gnasher: 2011-January-20, 06:20

... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#11 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2011-January-20, 06:02

And which two suits are shown by

1-4-4NT in

Andy's Alternative Adage?

It just might make sense to play that 4NT as natural. Or a good raise to 5
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#12 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2011-January-20, 06:06

View Postgnasher, on 2011-January-20, 05:58, said:

And why is it right to play 1 (4) 4NT as RKC but 1 (4) 4NT as two suits?

I can't answer your other question but this one seems easy. If I have 3 spades and a long minor I will bid 4 on the first auction. But if I have 3 hearts and a long minor I want to offer a choie on the second auction (assuming I have enough shape to compete to the 5-level).
The easiest way to count losers is to line up the people who talk about loser count, and count them. -Kieran Dyke
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#13 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-January-20, 06:19

View Postgwnn, on 2011-January-20, 06:02, said:

And which two suits are shown by

1-4-4NT in

Andy's Alternative Adage?

I got my majors and minors mixed up - I'll correct the original post.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#14 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-January-20, 06:28

View Postcherdano, on 2011-January-20, 06:06, said:

I can't answer your other question but this one seems easy. If I have 3 spades and a long minor I will bid 4 on the first auction. But if I have 3 hearts and a long minor I want to offer a choie on the second auction (assuming I have enough shape to compete to the 5-level).

True, but even after 1 (4) there are plenty of hands with both minors that don't want to risk a double. I think that's more likely than either RKC or natural, but maybe that's because I'm dealt fewer Keycard hands than most people.

I think we had a discussion about this sometime last year.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#15 User is offline   mich-b 

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Posted 2011-January-20, 06:33

View Posthan, on 2011-January-20, 03:57, said:

If it goes 1X - (4Y) then 4NT is:

- RKC if Y is lower than X.

- a 2-suiter if Y is higher than X.

I think JLOGIC taught me this rule, it's not mine Phil!

An alternative rule (simpler and imo a little better):
RKC if Y is a minor.
a 2 suiter if Y is a major.
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#16 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2011-January-20, 06:59

gnasher's rule is spreading like wildfire! :)
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#17 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2011-January-20, 10:48

View Postgnasher, on 2011-January-20, 05:58, said:

Which two suits are shown by 1 (4) 4NT?


I play that as RKC but I suppose you meant to ask about 1D - 4C. That's the exception to the rule.

Quote

And why is it right to play 1 (4) 4NT as RKC but 1 (4) 4NT as two suits?


I never claimed that anything is right. I think the difference between the two auctions is obvious though, so I'll let you figure it out.


Quote

My rule [edited to correct transposition between majors and minors] would be

- RKC if Y is a minor

- a 2-suiter if Y is a major

That also covers 1 (4) and 1 (4), which are undefined in Not Han's Rule.


I sure hope my opponents aren't reading this, or they'll start overcalling 1H - 4H!
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#18 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-January-20, 11:14

View Posthan, on 2011-January-20, 10:48, said:

I play that [1-4;4NT] as RKC but I suppose you meant to ask about 1D - 4C. That's the exception to the rule.

No, I meant to ask about 1-4-4NT. Diamonds are Y, and clubs are X, so Y > X and the rule you originally posted would make it a two-suiter. Either that or I've completely lost my mind.

Quote

I sure hope my opponents aren't reading this, or they'll start overcalling 1H - 4H!

There's no harm in being prepared.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#19 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2011-January-21, 04:36

View Postgnasher, on 2011-January-20, 11:14, said:

No, I meant to ask about 1-4-4NT.


Uh yes, it was I who lost his mind. But indeed, that's the exception.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#20 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2011-January-21, 05:54

agree with Ben (all the way to the top)
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