mycroft, on 2010-December-28, 17:38, said:
The thing is, that if it's a typical Gambling 3NT, by the time it goes 3NT!-p-4C!, North knows 2 things:
- West is not interested in game opposite clubs, but might opposite diamonds, and
- East has diamonds.
So, he knows for a fact that it's going to go p-4D-p-something, to him. If it's pass, then he has no more knowledge than he did the first time. If it's raise, he can no longer bid 4H/double for the 4 level. So, North wants to play 5M against a good hand, but 4D opposite a bad one? No, he says, he would double 4D. So he doesn't want to play 4D, until he learns that West has to think about diamonds. What could West have? Well, shortness and DJxx, I guess.
I'm confused. I assume that North has a way of bidding over 4C that shows interest in playing. Why didn't he choose that, when he knows what the auction is going to be next round? Sure, West was lazy and should have thought over 3NT. Was that going to do anything different for North than this auction? And North was just as lazy, to my mind.
It's an interesting bidding situation from North's point of view. If you are suggesting that because North passed on the first round, he was bound to pass on the second round, then I have to disagree with you.
When your side has been heavily pre-empted, I suggest making use of all available sequences. If North can rely on East bidding 4
♦ over 4
♣ - Pass then North has almost twice the number of sequences available. Pass then 4
♥/
♠should have a different meaning to an immediate 4
♥/
♠. Pass then double should have a different meaning than an immediate double [The possibility of West raising to 5
♦ should not be of concern as there are very few hands for Responder that would want to play at the 4-level in clubs but the 5-level in diamonds.]