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What do you bid here.

Would 2♣ be forcing?

If your clubs were AKQ986 what would your bid be?

Thank you

dickiegera, on 2016-September-07, 06:17, said:

In old fashioned Goren, redouble was the only call with 10+ so the answers are 2C, not forcing, and redouble.

I tend to play that a new suit is forcing only on the one level after a double, so my answers would be the same as the old-timers.

edit

I don't play it as forcing, just constructive but 2♣ followed by 3♣ should do justice either way and with both hands unless partner bids 2nt over the second one.

As others have written, the traditional solution is to bid 2♣. The answer playing ITD is either to pass or bid 1NT (showing 8-10) in either case expecting to bid clubs the next time around. The modern solution is to play transfers, here making this a 1♠ response.

Whether it is forcing or not depends on the system you play and your partnership agreements.

I play Acol and for us, it is forcing for one round. This hand is just about worth 2C.

Add the club queen and I'm tempted to bid 3NT.

dickiegera, on 2016-September-07, 06:17, said:

American standard:

• 2 cl is NF but not a sign off.
• 1 level responses after they dbl is F1 as if they did not DBL. 2 level non jump responses are NF.
• Minor hands that wants to make 2 level forcing response has to go through redouble

So 2 cl with this for me.

hi dickiegera,

How lucky you are to have a X to contend with as opposed to an intervening bid. Dbl. gives you that extra bid Redbl. to show good hands, and Dbl. doesn't raise the level of the bidding either!

So a 2♣ bid to me here would show exactly what you have: an 8-11 HCPs or thereabouts hand that is predominantly one-suited, in essence a free bid. Non forcing if needs be.

With ♣AKQ986 in the same hand, I feel it's just about worth a XX. That hand is close to opening bid territory, and Kaplan and Rubens hand evaluator confirms that at 12.90.

The_Badger, on 2016-September-08, 00:00, said:

How comfortable are you feeling in auctions of the type 1♦ - (X) - XX - (3/4♥); P - (P) - ?

We play transfers after a double to protect openers hand from a disastrous lead.So,with the given hand ,we bid 1S a NF transfer to 2C. Add the club Queen for an x and we bid 2S showing a solid club suit and 10/11 HCP but still NF.We use the redouble,as is usually done, with other different hands either to extract penalties or to reach a par contract.( not possible ,for want of space ,to detail all here)

The "standard" agreement is that, after an opponent's takeout double of a 1-suit opening bid by partner, new suits lower ranking than partner's suit that are bid at the 2-level are non-forcing and constructive. That is exactly what you have, so bid 2C.

If I had 9xx, Jx, xx, AKQxxx, I can choose between 2C (an underbid) and Rdbl (planning to bid clubs next and making a bit of an overbid).

Most people will play an immediate 3C bid as weak or preemptive in this situation, though 3C would be the perfect bid if defined/agreed by the partnership to describe a hand similar to this one.

In bridge it is always handy to give 2 (or more) differant meanings to a bid if possible.

If you agree that a redouble shows a hand with a 0-1 card in partners suit and or at least 10 HCP no other bid possible gives you a lot of extra information to any other action. The advantage of this agreement is that the opponents do not know what you have and to pass out 1x redoubled is risky so they will most likely bid. If you open 1c with a 2+ card and are to scarded to end up in a possible 2-1 fit in c (not verry likely) you can agree that a redouble after 1c-x-xx only shows 10+ HCP.

So if partner opens 1x followed by double your bids have the following meaning :

pass = 2+ card x no raise in x or other bid possible

redouble = 0-1 card x and or 10+ HCP no other bid possible or needed

2x = fit 0-9 HCP based on the LAW or holding 9-10 LTC for a major
3x = fit 0-9 HCP based on the LAW or holding 8 LTC for a major
4x = fit 0-9 HCP to play for a major with 7+ LTC or a barrage for a minor based on the LAW
5x (in a minor) = fit 0-9 HCP barrage or to play

1/2y (no jump) = non forcing (5)6-9 HCP 5+ card y 2+ card x (denies fit if x is a major)
2/3y (single jump) = non forcing (6)7-9 HCP 6+ card y 2+ card x (denies fit if x is a major)
3/4/5y (double+ jump in a minor) = barrage 7+ card y 0+ card x (not interestted in 3nt or x)
3y (double jump in a major) = 7+ card invite for 4y
4y (in a major) = to play 7+ card

1nt = 8-10 HCP balanced hand (with 10 HCP not interested to double opponents at 1 level)
2nt = 11-12 HCP invite for 3nt (not interested to double opponents at 1-2 level)
3nt = 12-15 HCP to play (not interested to double opponents at 1-3 level)
4nt = slamforcing asking aces (not interested to double opponents at 1-4 level)


After 1x-x-p-??//??-??- a bid of 1nt (if called for) shows 5-7 HCP any other bid is sign of with a 5+ card and 0-4(5) HCP.

After 1x-x-xx-??//p-??- or 1x-x-xx-p//p-??- a double shows 10+ HCP and all other bids have the same meaning if bid directly with the differance of holding a 0-1 card x instead of a 2+ card x and supporting your p in x shows a fit with 10+ HCP.

Playing a new suit with a 4+ card (1d-x-1h) is a matter of style. In my opinion it is better to show a 5+ card because if your partner has a fit a 5-3 fit will play better then a 4-4 fit due to the info double making the opponents distribution in trump most likely 4-1.

dickiegera, on 2016-September-07, 06:17, said:

I would bid 2C as a non-forcing lead-directional bid, bidding where I live.

With AKQxxx, I would double first then bid 2C if allowed.

LegalAid, on 2016-September-09, 08:08, said:

Did you mean redouble?

ahydra